Here is an interesting verse, that, taken word-by-word literally, would seem to contradict itself.
"For the promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God will call to Himself." --Acts 2:39, enfasis mine
The context:
is the day of Pentecost. Peter is preaching Jesus to the Jews. They come under conviction, and ask Peter and the rest of the apostles, "Brethren, what shall we do?" (v. 37)
Peter tells them, "Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit." (v. 38)
Here is where v. 39 comes in. The promise he is speaking of is salvation. (repentance, baptism, forgiveness of sins, the Holy Spirit.)
Inference:
We know from context that in v.39, "you and your children" are the Jews, and that "all who are far off" are the Gentiles. But then Peter clarifies that the promise of salvation is for "as many as the Lord our God will call to Himself", not all.
So does "all" mean "all"?
In this passage we see it used in reference to the Gentiles, but not in reference to the recipients of the promise of salvation.
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3 comments:
First of all, let me say, welcome back to the blogging world! :D I enjoy reading your posts.
This verse is not saying that everyone will be saved (universalism). All will not be saved. However, God calls whoever He wants to call. There is not one person that is unable to receive God's grace and mercy. The decision is up to God.
This is one of the verses I was telling Jeff about- the ones that can be used either way.
I am glad that we agree that God calls whom he wants to call. that kind of relates to my Rom. 1 post.
I don't understand how it could be used either way? If all are able to recieve God's grace and mercy, than saying that "the decision is up to God" says the opposite...?
Josh, you've been a great sport in all these discussions. I'm glad we can all talk about these things without getting on the defensive.
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